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- Thread starter puremath
- Start date

A. Let's make a diagram:

We can see the reference angle is \(60^{\circ}\) and the reference number is \(\dfrac{\pi}{3}\), which we get by converting the reference angle to radians.

The reference angle is the smallest angle subtended by a radius \(0\le\theta\le\dfrac{\pi}{2}\) and the \(x\)-axis, and the reference number is the shortest distance along the unit circle to the \(x\)-axis. Since the radius of the unit circle is by definition 1 unit, the reference number and reference angle (if given in radians) will have the same value.

A. Let's make a diagram:

View attachment 1447

We can see the reference angle is \(60^{\circ}\) and the reference number is \(\dfrac{\pi}{3}\), which we get by converting the reference angle to radians.

Is there an algebraic method?

A. Let's make a diagram:

View attachment 1447

We can see the reference angle is \(60^{\circ}\) and the reference number is \(\dfrac{\pi}{3}\), which we get by converting the reference angle to radians.